azguitarist
New Member
Hello, can we translate from the Bible in English and get a equal Bible in another language? If no then why not?
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Question for KJVOs"like me" can we translate from.....
- Thread starter azguitarist
- Start date
I think we could.
If one could make a legit English translation from the Vulgate then why not from the English into, say for example, Spanish?
The Latin came ultimately from Greek, therefore if you can translate from a translation it would work in any other form that originally came from Greek. The KJV is one such example. It comes from the Greek. So does the Vulgate. Therefore why not skip the Vulgate? Just use the KJV.
Makes sense to me. But of course, "I ain't got me no edjumication, an I ain't smart like sum fellers."! LOL
In HIS service;
Jim
If one could make a legit English translation from the Vulgate then why not from the English into, say for example, Spanish?
The Latin came ultimately from Greek, therefore if you can translate from a translation it would work in any other form that originally came from Greek. The KJV is one such example. It comes from the Greek. So does the Vulgate. Therefore why not skip the Vulgate? Just use the KJV.
Makes sense to me. But of course, "I ain't got me no edjumication, an I ain't smart like sum fellers."! LOL
In HIS service;
Jim
azguitarist
New Member
ne one else?
Actually, since no one language will translate 100% into another...If we translate the KJV into, say, Spanish, & then translate that Spanish edition back into English, we'd have two different English translations, even if we kept the second English translation in Elizabethan English.
azguitarist
New Member
Its very interesting that you would say Spanish due in part to the fact that the Mc-vey translation translates back in to English after being translated from English. Roby do you know Spanish?
azguitarist
New Member
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God inspired the Greek/Hebrew. From those, His exact words, we can translate them into the equivalent word (or close) in any receptor language in the world.
And that translation then becomes "inspired" (in a derived sense, since the words from which they were translated were inspired.
Now, can we take those "derived inspired" words and then translate them into the equivalent word (or close) in another language?
Yep.
Would it be derived inspired?
Nope.
It loses so much in accuracy and nuance, it becomes the writing of man. Even from a great translation (say, Jerome's Latin) the English would be weak in comparison to any translation directly from the Greek.
It would be a nice religious book, but no more inspired than the paraphrases, amplified, commentaries, etc.
And that translation then becomes "inspired" (in a derived sense, since the words from which they were translated were inspired.
Now, can we take those "derived inspired" words and then translate them into the equivalent word (or close) in another language?
Yep.
Would it be derived inspired?
Nope.
It loses so much in accuracy and nuance, it becomes the writing of man. Even from a great translation (say, Jerome's Latin) the English would be weak in comparison to any translation directly from the Greek.
It would be a nice religious book, but no more inspired than the paraphrases, amplified, commentaries, etc.
azguitarist
New Member
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azguitarist
New Member
I believe the problem is -people fail to see is TRANSLATING is exact-- Interpreting is not.
azguitarist
New Member
I have the Bible in English that was Translated...not interpreted...
AZ - you are right IF you are going from English to English!
But going from Greek to English you have hundreds of translational vagueries, since English is NOT as detailed a language as Greek.
THEN you take the English and go to Latin you are in deep do-do. For Latin (like Greek) is much more detailed.
Nothing to do with "interpreting". Everything to do with formal equivalence translating.
But going from Greek to English you have hundreds of translational vagueries, since English is NOT as detailed a language as Greek.
THEN you take the English and go to Latin you are in deep do-do. For Latin (like Greek) is much more detailed.
Nothing to do with "interpreting". Everything to do with formal equivalence translating.
azguitarist
New Member
Also, Dr. Bob Please , I would like to see one Bible in another language that was TRANSLATED from
the KJV that has become """a nice religious book, but no more inspired than the paraphrases, amplified, commentaries, etc."""""
the KJV that has become """a nice religious book, but no more inspired than the paraphrases, amplified, commentaries, etc."""""
No you don't. Sorry. You've been deceived. Even the most FORMAL EQUIVALENT translation (like the AV1611) has INTERPRETATION replacing translation in many places.
The Anglican influence in choices of words or phrases has been admitted by even the staunchest "only".
I even call it the "Anglican Version" (AV)!
azguitarist
New Member
What is an example? In a language you understand?
Yet since YOU believe that we dont have the inerrant WORD PERFECT Word of God in English this makes the idea of translation from the KJV bogus.Therefore this argument if futile.
Yet since YOU believe that we dont have the inerrant WORD PERFECT Word of God in English this makes the idea of translation from the KJV bogus.Therefore this argument if futile.
to answer the question, sure. If there was a task to translate the bible into say, Mandarin, and the translaters are english speakers, it only makes sense to translate from the KJV instead of spending years trying to learn the greek and hebrew.
There are rules to follow in the translation process so that the most faithful translation of the Bible is produced.
It's been done.
If there was a task to translate the bible into say, Mandarin, and the translaters are english speakers, it only makes sense to translate from the KJV instead of spending years trying to learn the greek and hebrew. There are rules to follow in the translation process so that the most faithful translation of the Bible is produced.
It's been done.
azguitarist
New Member
BTW I have one and it translates back into English
word for word. Therefore since the ""nice religious book, but no more inspired than the paraphrases, amplified, commentaries, etc.""""" that i have reads the same as the KJV then the KJV now equals"""a nice religious book, but no more inspired than the paraphrases, amplified, commentaries, etc."""""
word for word. Therefore since the ""nice religious book, but no more inspired than the paraphrases, amplified, commentaries, etc.""""" that i have reads the same as the KJV then the KJV now equals"""a nice religious book, but no more inspired than the paraphrases, amplified, commentaries, etc."""""