You are teaching works, it’s not my fault you cannot see this. If I have to do one thing in order to be saved, then that constitutes a work. You’re going back under the Mosaic Covenant.
You assume that the influence of the Holy Spirit means a person is born again.
John 16:7-11. Matthew 13:20-21, ". . . he that received the seed into stony places, the same is he that heareth the word, and anon with joy receiveth it;
Yet hath he not root in himself, but dureth for a while: for when tribulation or persecution ariseth because of the word, by and by he is offended. . . ." And so also, Matthew 7:21, ". . . Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven. . . ."
From Adam Clarke, who was NOT reformed, but a worthwhile read…
Verse Romans 5:14 (NAS)
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.
Romans 5:14. Nevertheless, death reigned from Adam to Moses — This supposes, as Dr. Taylor very properly observes:-
1. That sin was in the world from Adam to Moses.
2. That law was not in the world from Adam to Moses during the space of about 2500 years; for, after Adam's transgression, that law was abrogated; and, from that time, men were either under the general covenant of grace given to Adam or Noah, or under that which was specially made with Abraham.
3. That, therefore, the sins committed were not imputed unto them to death, for they did not sin after the similitude ofAdam's transgression; that is, they did not, like him, transgress a law, or rule of action, to which death, as the penalty, was annexed. And yet-
4. Death reigned over mankind during the period between Adam and Moses; therefore men did not die for their own transgressions, but in consequence of Adam's one transgression.
So, if Brother Clarke was right, ppl prior to law were found guilty, based not upon what they did, but what Adam did. I’m not convinced this is the case, but I haven’t delved into that verse..guess I’m going to have to…but if it is, it shows that God treats ppl, via Adam’s guilt being imputed unto them, as if they were the one(s) who ate of the Tree of Knowledge.
I assume nothing my friend. Jesus, in easily to understand words, said no one can see the Kingdom of God UNLESS they are born again[John 3:3, John 3:5, & John 3:8].
Again with false accustion.
You hear fully that I stated salvation is a gift.
What do you do with these three promises?
Faith plus baptism to be saved, Mark 16:16.
Faith plus confession to be saved, Romans 10:9.
Faith plus prayer to be saved, Romans 10:13-15. It is the faith that is required not the work or trusting in suggested work.
These things are done are AFTER being born again. They are not a prerequisite of salvation, but an evidence of salvation. A person is born again, repents and believes[Mark 1:15]. All this happens simultaneously.
Yes, you said salvation is a gift. Must one reach out to receive it or does God unilaterally give it to that one? If it’s the former, that’s works. If I had to reach out to receive salvation, I worked, I merited it. There’s no escaping this. The only thing I added to my salvation were the sins that were laid upon my Saviour, who bore them on my behalf upon the cross.
The seeing referring to the New Heaven and New Earth, Revelation 21:27.
But until then, Luke 17:20-21, ". . .
And when he was demanded of the Pharisees, when the kingdom of God should come, he answered them and said, The kingdom of God cometh not with observation: Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you. . . ." Which is how it is now.
Was not yet given - Δεδομενον , given is added by the Codex Vaticanus, (B.) the Syriac, all the Persic, later Syriac with an asterisk, three copies of the Slavonic, Vulgate, and all the Itala but three; and several of the primitive fathers. The word seems necessary to the completion of the sense.
Certain measures of the Holy Spirit had been vouchsafed from the beginning of the world to believers and unbelievers: but that abundant effusion of his graces spoken of by Joel, Joel 2:28 , which peculiarly characterized the Gospel times, was not granted till after the ascension of Christ:
Because this Spirit in its plenitude was to come in consequence of his atonement; and therefore could not come till after his crucifixion.
2. It was to supply the place of Christ to his disciples and to all true believers; and therefore it was not necessary till after the removal of his bodily presence from among them. See our Lord's own words, John 14:16-18 , John 14:26 ; John 15:26 ; John 16:7-15 .
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To say ppl did not possess the Holy Spirit and yet be saved is not biblical. Being born again is not a New Testament reality, but was also in the Old Testament as well.
It is your fault you accuse me falsely.
Mark 16:16 is true.
And baptism is not the requirement. Romans 10:9 is true. And confession of Jesus is Lord is not the requirement. Matthew 7:21. Romans 10:13-15 is true. And saying a prayer is
not a required work in order to be saved.
I wouldn’t post Matthew 16:16 as that passage is the only place where Christ adds baptism to salvation. No other place in the four gospels does Christ add baptism as a requirement of salvation. If you aver that, then handling snakes and drinking poison are a must as well.