Interesting web page.
BTW, they contend Peter Ruckman is an extremest.
Why We Use The KJV
Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Salty, Sep 20, 2010.
Page 1 of 6
-
-
They may not be Ruckmanites, but they spread the same sort of twisting of the truth to bolster their position.
-
At least they admit:
That the KJV is not strictly and TR translation
That the NKJV was not translated from the Alexandrian texts (though I have to chuckle at their reasons to reject the NKJV)
I do find it interesting that they do not address the 1 John 5v12 issue in their description of the differences between the 1611 and 1769 editions of the KIng James. -
-
Same ole KJVO blarney, consisting of little fact, mostly opinion and guesswork. Avoids the cardinal fact that makes the KJVO doctrine false: its man-made origin and total lacka Scriptural support.
-
I love how it says that 99% of the texts support the TR. That number is way to high. Some readings are in the minority (Acts 8:37) or the vast minority (Comma Johanneum). This statement shows their complete ignorance. Or that the TR and the Byzantine Text type are synonymous. So many fallacies, so little time.
-
I carefully read the entire document and it made a lot of sense.
Therefore I agree with it’s conclusion..........
Thanks Salty. -
3. Pastor Sexton and his minions are wrong. -
Why I use the KJV?
1. I like it.
2. Most of the congregation uses it.
3. I like it.
4.. Our pew bibles are KJV.
5. I like it.
Did I mention I like it? :) -
-
-
Liberals and apostates favor the Critical text.
Guilt by association
Non-sequitur
JW's liked the KJV. Mormons still like the KJV. therefore the KJV is bad. - see what happens when we use kjvo logic.
Without a doubt Satan is behind the confusion.
What confusion? the KJV Only stuff? Sure.
But there are also Christians who believe this position as well. Now there is one of two reasons why:
1. They have never been taught
2. Willingly ignorant
Never been taught what? The lies that were in this article? Ignorant of what? That the information presented wasn't true? -
We have a few kjvo churches in our association that are not King James Only.
Like me, used the KJV since 1945, made my corrections, and used it all my life. I have privately read many other translations, including Greek and Hebrew.
I wonder how many other churches are accused of being KJVO simply because they use the KJV,,,,,,,,,,only?
Cheers,
Jim -
However if I were to put my opinion on it it would be:
1. I don't like it as well..to awkward and archaic.
2. Basically none of our congregation uses it.
3. I don't like it as well as the NKJV, the NASB and the ESV because it is written in a form of english no longer spoken.
4. We do not have pew bibles but the pastors use the NIV and the ESV
5. See 1 and 3 :) -
-
-
-
-
-
1 Cor 1:18 is an example.
KJV: For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God.
NKJV: For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God.
The Present Passive Participle in Greek functions much like a "state of being" verb in English. It has no temporal significance, but merely indicates a state of being. The way the NKJV and many other of the more modern versions, translates it seems to indicate a continuing action rather than a state of being. It obfuscates the nature of salvation being an instantaneous event in time and makes it appear as if it is a process.
Did that help? :)
Page 1 of 6