We were having a friendly debate on the "Modes of Baptism" thread, where I had stated that immersion is the preferred method for baptism but that pouring and sprinkling are acceptable.
Preachinjesus disagrees, although he would allow for pouring or sprinkling in extenuating circumstances.
To present an analogous situation, he said:
To which I replied:
So, Prechinjesus, J.D. or any others, if we need to be totally literalistic in the application of scripture to baptism, why not insist on wine in the communion cup?
Isn't one of these ordinances just as important as the other?
And please, let's try to stick to the subject of the Lord's Supper.
We have had so many threads on the use of or abstinence from alcohol that everyone is totally tired.
When "a person" doesn't believe Christ died for all of our sins, including those future, I'd say worry about communion wine/grape juice should be of the least of ones worries.
Its not an equal example and there is no logic that would insist that if one is done the other should be. The nature of the two do not impose such a requirement.
What difference does it make?
It's still the fruit of the vine.
The juice of the grape was called "blood".
Seems fitting to me.
Also we do it in remembrance of Christ's blood, unlike Catholics who think it's "real" blood.
Why insist on wine? Consistency would be to focus on grape-juice, which is the more Biblical element to use in the Lord's Table, if one is going to administer it at all in the scenario described.
Why, pray tell?
They’re both church ordinances so they should both be observed as closely as possible to the N.T model for them.
It would seem eminently logical to insist on wine.
Of course I’m not student of philosophy so maybe the logic is flawed.
Enlighten me please.
DHK, at you are being more logical about this than most.
I think I know this much about logic.
However, you seem to have staked out the position that our Lord celebrated His Last Supper with grape juice.
I disagree for at least three reasons:
1.
It was in the spring, about as far from the grape harvest as seasons can get from each other.
2.
In most places where we see "wine" in scripture, it is in the context of having an intoxicating effect.
3.
The Last Supper was celebrated in the week of the Passover.
Most people think it actually was the Passover meal.
According to Exodus 12, there is to be no leaven, none at all, in the house during the week of the Passover.
Grape juice contains leaven so it would have been highly improper to use it.
Not my belief system.
Just because I think OSAS is totally wrong doesn't mean I don't believe Christ died for all our sins, including those in the future.
"Without shedding of blood there is no forgiveness."
Apparently you think all sins were forgiven at the cross, but in fact sins are forgiven when you seek fovgiveness.
If that is not the case, you need to take a pair of sissors to 1 John 1:9.
The N.T. gives four accounts of the last supper—Matthew, Mark, Luke and 1 Corinthians.
I don’t think you will find the actual word “wine” used in these accounts.
If you read them, or something else, and find I am wrong, I will happily stand corrected.