Putting your own preferred interpretation in bold print does not make it right.
The nearest antecedent to 'that' is 'faith,' and therefore it is a reasonable assumption that it is the faith that is the gift of God, though in fact, every aspect of salvation is of God (1 Corinthians 4:7).
The YLT says it.
Eph 2:8
for by grace ye are having been saved, through faith, and this not of you—of God the gift,
You asked you receive but you can't show me where scripture says babies go to hell.
MB
Don't you have the Spirit of God living inside of you. If so then God is the gift. It's so simple a child could understand it. Yet you stumble over it
Go ahead and call me a heretic if it makes you happy. The YLT makes my day every time though it ruined your's.,
MB
I know God. Don't you? Ephesians 2:8 does not say God to be the Gift. But to make the Argument that God is a gift, John 17:3 with Romans 6:23 makes the case. Also noting 1 John 5:9-12.
John 6:39
“This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day.
1) Does this address those already given, or anyone ever given? Answer - anyone ever given.
2) Does this verse say that anyone has been given (spiritually placed into Christ) at the time Jesus spoke? Nope
What this verse actually says is whenever, past, present or future, God has given an individual to Christ, the Father's will is that Christ will loss none of those given.
Thus John 6:29 does not support election (God giving a person to Christ for salvation) before creation of the entire body of Christ.
Calvinism reads that bogus view into the text.
Critical reading is a skill apparently in scant supply among the gullible.
I never claimed "faith" to be "eternal life."
through faith yes.
But faith does not cause anything.
Knowing God, having Christ is to have eternal life, John 17:3, 1 John 5:12, 2 Corinthians 13:5.
As predicted, all the advocates of false doctrine offer is "taint so."
Here is the verse (NKJV)
John 6:39
“This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day.
1) Does this address those already given, or anyone ever given? Answer - anyone ever given.
2) Does this verse say that anyone has been given (spiritually placed into Christ) at the time Jesus spoke? Nope
What this verse actually says is whenever, past, present or future, God has given an individual to Christ, the Father's will is that Christ will loss none of those given.
Thus John 6:29 does not support election (God giving a person to Christ for salvation) before creation of the entire body of Christ. Calvinism reads that bogus view into the text. Critical reading is a skill apparently in scant supply among the gullible.
A literal translation throws you off doesn't it.
I read a post here awhile back where the writers were claiming the KJV had so many mistakes. They claimed that the KJV was translated by Calvinist. At first I didn't know what to think of this. They discussed
the Calvinist adding and taking away from scriptures in the translation of it..
This is the YLT
Eph 2:8
for by grace ye are having been saved, through faith, and this not of you—of God the gift,
This version is taken from the same majority of text. as the KJV The point is the KJV translators
appears to have added to this verse
I'm not accusing anyone but Greens interlinear also agrees with it The italics in this verse are two little words " IT IS'
so the average person looks at it and says the gift is faith Even you called faith the gift.
You said;( "Putting your own preferred interpretation in bold print does not make it right. The nearest antecedent to 'that' is 'faith,' and therefore it is a reasonable assumption that it is the faith that is the gift of God, though in fact, every aspect of salvation is of God")
I assumed you were saying you believe that faith is the Gift even though we both know the Gift is" eternal life" Is this not true?
MB
No.
You seem not to understand some words or phrases
the same way I do.
"of God" for example.
Ephesians 2:8 . . . θεου . . .
and Romans 6:23 . . . του θεου . . . ." In both cases what is translated
gift is "of" being from God. But God Himself is not being said to be the gift.
John 6:39 does not support election (God giving a person to Christ for salvation) before creation of the entire body of Christ. Calvinism reads that bogus view into the text. Critical reading is a skill apparently in scant supply among the gullible.
The will of God, no matter when, remains the same, for Christ not to lose any that have been given to Him.
John 6:39
“This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day.
Unbelievable!
In every sense of the word.
Still, if Van can keep on repeating himself ad nauseam then I suppose I can.
'All those that He has given Me.' The tense is actually Perfect (Dedoken. Check it out), meaning a completed action in the past. Of all those whom the Father has once and for all given to the Lord Jesus before ever time was, He will lose not one.
The "taint so parade" marches on, with the band playing "I do not know and I do not care."
Is the issue the tense of "given?"
Nope.
The idea is whenever individuals are given, they will not be lost.
So if a person is given in the future, God's will is that those in that group of given individuals, will not be lost.
The inability of some to comprehend the obvious is amazing.
So the band plays on...
Has anyone read John 17.
And how Jesus prayed for His apostles that their words would result in more believers.
The idea that God does not credit the faith of those who believe and place them into Christ in every generation since Christ's death is ludicrous.
The scale of biblical nullification is "unbelievable."