Again, "death" isn't a "something" that is only passed by the male like the Y chromosome. It's what Adam could NOT impart, and that is life.
Anyway, that's my point. The Virgin Birth was a sign only. Christ's sinlessness was not contingent upon it. God's hand wasn't forced. It was simply God's will and pleasure that Redemption be accomplished in the manner that it was, and it glorifies Him alone.
Once we understand that then we won't slide into erroneous ideas concerning the the "sin nature" and superstitious notions concerning the human body of Christ, as did Morris. Christ took his flesh from Mary. He didn't implant it there.
One must establish context. David's psalm was a psalm of repentance. It is a soul-searching confession of his sin and sinful condition before God. "Against thee and thee alone have I sinned. He considers the awful sinfulness of sin. He looks down into the innermost depths of his own sin nature, as the NET translation indicates. There is no "fallen world" in the verse, in the context, anywhere in the psalm to render such an interpretation. The psalm is a psalm of repentance--deeply intimate, between him and God. The world has nothing to do with it.
Your analogy is like saying: Yes Lord, forgive me for being an alcoholic and being drunk, but it is the fault of the society. If the society wasn't so wicked I would't have sinned.
David takes responsibility for his sin. He fully realizes his own sinful condition. The world around him had no part in his sin.
The sin nature isn't a sin; it is our nature. We have a nature that gives us a tendency towards sin. I must teach my children to tell the truth; I never had to teach them how to lie. They knew that "as soon as they were born," as the psalmist put it. It was in their nature.
Can the Ethiopian change his skin?
Can the leopard change his spots?
Can you, being accustomed to doing evil, then do good?
--You are accustomed to doing evil because it is in your nature. Your nature can only be changed by being born again, that is, having a new nature.
No one doubts or denied the virgin birth of Jesus.
No one doubts that Mary was impregnated by the Holy Spirit.
No one doubts that Jesus was without sin in His human form.
Now back to the question: How did Mary have a child without sin if she was a sinner from birth herself. If her normal egg was used, how did it escape natural sin? Doesn't he woman pass on that natural state of the newborn? The good Dr. postulated an idea that God created the egg which came to fruition in the womb of Mary and hence was born fully man; fully God in the fulness of time.........now take the discussion from there and forget all the things we all know and agree on......this is unknown.
Actually, the Catholic Doctrine of the Immaculate Conseption has everything to do with Jesus.
Because the thinking went along the lines of some suggestions already made here.
Just like Theotokos has less to do with Mary and Everything to do with the Nature of Christ.
No - what I meant is that the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception does NOT have to do directly with Jesus but Mary's own conception.
Yes, it has to do with Jesus in that Mary "needed" to be sinless in order to give birth to the Son of God, but that is not Biblical teaching.