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The title of this thread was supposed to be Romans 8:28-30, can a mod correct this for me??
Disclaimer for my DoG Brethern; I am directing this question towards my FW Brethern, but feel free to join in. The reason why I am directing it this way is because I know y'all will disagree with this analysis, but I don't know if my FW Brethern will agree or disagree with this. I am not 100% dogmatic about this, but the more I study this out, the more I "lean" this way!!
Rom. 8: 28 And we know...
I wasn't sure where this would fit into the other thread going on now, so I'll ask my question in this one.
Hebrews 10:26-29, (NKJV)
For if we sin willfully after we have received the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins,
but a certain fearful expectation of judgement, and fiery indignation which will devour the adversaries.
Anyone who has rejected Moses' law dies without mercy on the testimony of two or three witnesses.
Of how much worse...
I agree that Christians should be baptized within a reasonable time after salvation. What do you do when someone's health will not allow for immersion?
Baptism by immersion could and probably compromise their health. What do you think or what does your church do?
I'm looking forward to reading the responses on this thread.
A loved one and I recently had a discussion involving salvation. And to be honest with you, I got a little frustrated at his skepticism, but then again. A point that I never really thought about came up and I did not know how to respond to such because I could not see how something could be possible, even though I'm sure it is...Ive just never encountered it, or experienced it the way he tried to illustrate.
So he doesnt...
I know of a couple where one of them engaged in marital infidelity. When confronted by the spouse the individual was very sorry and asked for forgiveness and vowed never to let it happen again. However in their discussion on this as usual the offender was asked how they could do such a thing and the reply was something like this. Well I was weak and we just got to talking at work one day and one thing led to another and also no one is perfect and that person really does not mean anything to...
If God foreknows all his own thoughts before thinking them how can He ever originate a new thought? Was God ever unknowing of a thought or intent prior to its being originated? If not, how did that thought ever originate?
Could it be that our finite linear thinking and speculations fall short when speaking of God's foreknowledge and its necessity of being predeterminate in nature?
Here is teaching on effectual calling,I recently posted this in another thread.
This teaching comes from this book,and is used by permission from the author
Self Publishing, Book Printing and Publishing Online - Lulu
The Scriptures distinguish between an outward or external, general call to salvation which is to be made through the free offer of the gospel to all men without discrimination...