Why? do you think the Scripture says "who hath known the mind of God and who hath been His councelor? :)
I didn't read it just thought you were giving us the correct way to explain it. I removed it.
Did Jesus ever kill anyone?
Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Joseph_Botwinick, Aug 9, 2006.
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Jesus = Christ. Christ is Yeshua (Jesus) in Greek. Yeshua is Savior (the Messiah).
So where do you get a fancy, Jesus was born from?
Sounds like traditional mormon theology (about 2 centuries old). IMHO. -
You sure? -
Bob
The above was not Scripture - it is part of the Athanasian creed - written against sabellianism . . . -
Joseph Botwinick -
I feel like I been to school and had trouble remembering the word. :)
El_Guero;
It was part of the lesson though wasn't it? :) -
Bob
Oneness, Modalism, and Sabellianism are all good words to not be able to remember ...
Jesus is Lord - is a great word to remember! -
So, Jesus Christ does not have a beginning, but the incarnation did take place at a certain point in history.
Be careful not to sound like Jesus and Christ are different - this is taught by a lot of New Agers (particularly Episcopal priest Matthew Fox) who believe that Christ is a "Christ spirit" (i.e., Christ consciousness) that can be taken on or achieved/realized by different beings at various points in history. -
Jn 16:7 Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.
Jesus is the son of God according to the Bible. -
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Jesus was saying the HS would come after He left. It does not mean that Jesus and the HS cannot exist as the same time. I hope you are not saying that.
When Jesus was baptized, the HS descended "like a dove." -
I don't want to be led off either. I believe in One Godhead but I believe in The Father, The Son and The Holy Ghost and these three or trinity make up the Godhead. I hope this meets with your approval but whether it does or not its what I believe.
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Clarification
1. No one here is saying that "Jesus" (God in the flesh during the specific period of time on earth) killed anyone between 2 B.C. and A.D. 31 (if that is Gregorianly correct).
2. When Joseph says that "Jesus" killed people, he is talking about the Person of God who took on flesh as "Jesus", and saying that this same Personality is responsible for the deaths of the Egyptians, Ananias and Sapphira, and several others. Can this be an accurate assumption?
Remember, "God" in the Old Testament is often the Hebrew word Elohim which is a collective plural. Just like cherub is singular and cherubim is a collective plural (like a uint). This word is great for describing the Trinity.
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also,
Lk 2:11*For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord. -
We must know what we believe and why. We then must be able to recognize error when it raises its ugly head, and chop it off before it leads someone astray.
I don't think anyone here ascribes to modalism, but we must be careful with the language we use.
peace to you:praying: -
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Well,
I have to go to bed so I can get up and go to work tommorow. I won't be on hardly at all tommorow, so don't get too carried away with this thread. Bob,
If you do choose to apologize for lying about me and what I said, make sure you PM me a link so that I can make sure and see it. Perhaps, we can restore some mutual respect and friendship as a result. As of right now, however, there is really none left as far as I am concerned.
Good night,
Joseph Botwinick -
Good night,
Joseph Botwinick:sleep:
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