Do New Testament quotations of the Old Testament, which are translations of Hebrew to Greek, provide examples of and precedents for idiomatic translation over essentially literal translation?
I just purchased and read Dave Brunn's One Bible, Many Versions. It is an interesting read and raises many issues to think upon. In Chapter 8, "First Century Translators," Brunn writes,
"Does it really matter if we change Abram to Abraham, or say “God” instead of “the Lord”? Apparently not, because God allowed it in Romans 4:3. The form has been changed, but the meaning is the same...God in his sovereignty allowed New Testament authors to quote Genesis 15:6 and other passages in a form that is not a word-for-word translation of the verses from which they originated." (p. 152)
"James and Peter both changed “the Lord” to “God” when they quoted Proverbs 3:34...The author of the book of Hebrews also substituted “God” for “the Lord” in Hebrews 9:20, quoting Exodus 24:8 like this." (p. 151)
"...even within Scripture, the New Testament writers and speakers sometimes changed the forms when they translated from one language to another (chapter 8).
"Despite these realities, God's Word still stands as our firm foundation." (p. 158)
Thoughts?
New Testament Quotations of the Old Testament
Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by rlvaughn, Apr 7, 2018.
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Singulars and plurals are exchanged also, and it is perfectly fine. -
More folks need to be made aware of the facts he presents --though it often counters their narrative.
It's the second best book on the subject. -
Brunn gives two examples of translating/quoting active as passive.
Some of Brunn's book can be seen using the Google Books preview. -
if it was known as a quote in Hebrew, why use the Greek to then translate to English? Why not Hebrew straight to English?
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Jordan Kurecki Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
I'm not really sure that the New Testament quotes of the Old Testament with slight variation can used to support Dynamic Equivalency. The New Testament writers wrote under inspiration and the Holy Spirit has the authority to quote the Old Testament with whatever variations he wanted. I do not see how that gives authority to us to do the same.
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The examples that Brunn gives are in English because he is writing to English readers. But he is dealing, for example, with active/passive in Hebrew and Greek. -
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The Hebrew quote being said in Greek is fine to stay in as a Greek Translation, Jesus did not speak Greek. If He spoke Hebrew, or Aramaic . why include Greek if the original quotes are known? To your point, is it an discrepancy if a quote from the OT does not match the NT? -
Lord from a monotheistic culture is quite different than God is a polytheistic culture as Greek
Accuracy is most important.
During Paul's conversion, one says Jesus spoke in Hebrew in the KJv and in Aramaic in the Peshitta
Acts 26:14 - And we fell all of us upon the earth; and I heard a voice that said to me in Hebrew, Shaol, Shaol, why persecutest thou me ? [Shaol, Shaol, mono rodeph ath li ?] It is hard to thee to kick against the pricks !
in one yet this in another.
14 And we all fell to the ground, and I heard a voice, while saying unto me in Ebraith {the Hebrew, or rather, the Aramaic Language}: ‘Shaul {Saul}! Shaul {Saul}! Why do you persecute Me? It is hard for you to kick the goads!
Does it matter which language? Depends on the listener. -
Baptist Believer Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
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Jesus spoke Aramaic and Hebrew. He probably knew Greek as well but He would not have quoted Hebrew scriptures in Greek to Hebrew scholars who knew Hebrew scriptures very well
Please show m a verse that was Greek spoken by Jesus -
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Baptist Believer Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
The phrase "sight to the blind" is in the LXX, but not in the Hebrew text of Isaiah 61. -
Yes, it was preserved in Greek, Then translated to English. Hebrew to Greek to English. They can be different,,,both are Inspired? Translations are not inspired -
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Baptist Believer Well-Known MemberSite Supporter
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